bellochio asked a question that perplexed a few here, namely Why does MS Word's algorithm for vertical positioning of super- and subscripts not conform to TeX's ?.
The question was closed for being about Microsoft technology, but I think that the kernel of the question is interesting, even if it's one that we are fairly likely not able to provide a good answer to, namely why do Tex and Word lay out superscripts and subscripts differently?
At the very least, the question referenced an NTG MAPS article, so is coming from our culture.
I think we should try to make the question clearer and then reopen it, to see how we do. The site is not in any danger of being drowned by comparative typesetting questions, so I tend to think it is healthy for us to see how we manage with it.